Mortgage interest deduction in case of divorce | Legal aid


Questioner

If there is a marriage under prenuptial agreement (cold exclusion) and the owner-occupied home is in the name of the man who leaves the house, but the mortgage debt is in both names. How should the mortgage interest deduction be deducted? For the woman, there is no ownership of the home, but she does share in the debt and pays 50% of the interest. Can she deduct this and if so, how?

Lawyer

For a specific answer on this matter, it is better to contact the tax authorities.

Lawyer

If your question is about a divorce situation, the mortgage interest remains fully deductible for a period of 2 years after the actual departure of one of the partners. I can answer you better if you make your question more specific, or if you call me.

Take the next step

Don't keep questions about your situation to yourself. Ask your question and get a personal answer from an experienced lawyer.
Privacy is guaranteed .