Return to signed divorce document?

Questioner

Ex-partner has cheated on him and wants a divorce. She has drawn up a document in connection with the divorce and had it signed by the gentleman under emotional duress. This document states that the gentleman is relinquishing the house, furnishings and that only a few personal items are being taken by the gentleman. The document with which the divorce application is being made also contains amounts for alimony, whereby the gentleman would owe € 1,360 in alimony as of January, while he has a net income of € 2,250. With this alimony it would therefore not be possible to rent an apartment or something like that. She told the gentleman that ''something just needs to be filled in so that the application can be sent'' and assured the gentleman that these amounts would still be calculated definitively. - Madam lives in the owner-occupied home in Austria. Her parents have invested €30,000 of their own resources here, but do not pay rent or anything like that. Mr. and Mrs. are joint owners of the home, of which Mrs. has stated in the document that the gentleman is relinquishing. She cannot provide proof that he is no longer on the mortgage and is no longer the owner of the home. Is this allowed? - Sir, madam and the children all have Dutch nationality - They got married in the Netherlands - The gentleman now lives in the Netherlands again - The lady went to the Netherlands with the children without communicating about this with her ex-partner - The lady demands that the gentleman leave the house before the holidays but pays the mortgage. The gentleman goes to the Netherlands and when saying goodbye to the 3 children, the lady has the document signed. The gentleman eventually came to the Netherlands - The lady threatens that the gentleman will not be allowed to see the children if he does not pay the maintenance, but the gentleman cannot pay the maintenance because he does not have sufficient means to pay the amount from the application. Can this maintenance be calculated on the basis of the means or is the gentleman obliged to pay the amount of € 1,360? - There is a house for sale in Austria. The gentleman has not been bought out and has not taken any savings or household effects with him. The gentleman has only taken some personal effects to the Netherlands. Can this be done or should the lady buy him out, divide the household effects and divide the money? They are married in community of property.

Lawyer

Thank you for your message. I would like to discuss the content of the questions by telephone. Would you like to contact me at 040-2350422?